Q1. What is the simplified expression for the Boolean function F(A, B, C, D) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14) using the K-map method?
(A) A'B'C'D' + A'B'C'D + A'BC'D + AB'C'D + ABCD
(B) A'B'C'D' + A'BC'D + AB'C'D + ABC'D + ABCD
(C) A'B'C'D' + A'BC'D + ABC'D + ABCD
(D) A'B'C'D' + A'BC'D' + A'BCD + ABCD
A'B'C'D' + A'B'C'D + A'BC'D + AB'C'D + ABCD
Q2. In a PLA, what components are used to implement the combinational logic functions?
(A) AND gates and OR gates
(B) NAND gates and XOR gates
(C) NOR gates and XNOR gates
(D) NOT gates and multiplexers
AND gates and OR gates
Q3. Which type of register is primarily used to temporarily hold data during arithmetic and logical operations in a microprocessor?
(A) Shift register
(B) Parallel register
(C) Accumulator register
(D) Counter register
Accumulator register
Q4. Which logic family uses both depletion and enhancement mode MOSFETs for its operation?
(A) TTL
(B) ECL
(C) PMOS
(D) CMOS
CMOS
Q5. What is the primary difference between ROM and RAM?
(A) ROM is faster than RAM
(B) ROM is volatile, while RAM is non-volatile
(C) ROM is used for data storage, while RAM is used for program execution
(D) ROM stores permanent data that cannot be changed, while RAM stores temporary data that can be read and written
ROM stores permanent data that cannot be changed, while RAM stores temporary data that can be read and written
Q6. Given a Boolean function F(A, B, C) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 3, 5), what is the SOP expression?
(A) A'B'C' + A'B'C + A'BC' + ABC
(B) A'B'C' + A'B'C + A'BC' + AB'C
(C) A'B'C' + A'B'C + A'BC' + AB'C + ABC
(D) A'B'C' + A'B'C + ABC
A'B'C' + A'B'C + A'BC' + AB'C
Q7. If the sum of two positive binary numbers is 11010 and there is a carry-out from the MSB, what should be done to obtain the correct result?
(A) Discard the carry
(B) Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
(C) Add the carry to the most significant bit (MSB)
(D) Subtract the carry from the MSB
Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
Q8.In binary multiplication using the simple method, what is the first step after aligning the digits and preparing for multiplication?
(A) Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplier
(B) Multiply the most significant bit (MSB) by the multiplier
(C) Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplicand
(D) Multiply the most significant bit (MSB) by the multiplicand
Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplier
Q9. What is the relationship between the distance between parity bits and their error detection and correction capability in Hamming Code?
A) Closer parity bits provide higher error correction capability
(B) Closer parity bits provide lower error correction capability
(C) Distance between parity bits has no impact on error correction capability
(D) The position of parity bits is irrelevant in Hamming Code
Closer parity bits provide lower error correction capability
Q10. To convert a Gray Code to its binary equivalent, which technique is commonly used?
(A) Subtraction method
(B) Addition method
C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
(D) Division method
Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
Q11. Which component of an ideal microcomputer is responsible for temporarily holding data and instructions during processing?
(A) CPU
(B) ALU
(C) Memory
(D) Output devices
Memory
Q12. How is the width of the data bus typically measured in a microcomputer system?
(A) In kilobytes (KB)
(B) In megahertz (MHz)
(C) In bits
(D) In address lines
In bits
Q13. Microcontrollers find application in various fields. What is a typical application of microcontrollers in the automotive industry?
(A) Operating systems for computers
(B) Entertainment systems in airplanes
(C) Engine control in cars
(D) Weather forecasting systems
Engine control in cars
Q14. Which data structure often results in a time-space tradeoff by using extra memory to speed up operations?
(A) Arrays
(B) Linked lists
(C) Hash tables
(D) Stacks
Hash tables
Q15. Which term refers to optimizing resources by sacrificing one aspect for improvement in another?
(A) Greedy algorithm
(B) Divide and conquer
(C) Dynamic programming
(D) Tradeoff
Tradeoff
Q16. Conditional asymptotic notation is useful when:
(A) Algorithms have constant complexity
(B) Input size is fixed
(C) Input data is random
(D) Algorithm behavior varies with input characteristics
Algorithm behavior varies based on certain input characteristics
Q17. If an algorithm is bounded by "o(f(n)) if g(n)", what notation remains when the condition is removed?
(A) o(f(n))
(B) o(g(n))
(C) o(f(n) + g(n))
(D) o(f(n) * g(n))
o(f(n))
Q18. The recurrence equation T(n) = T(n/2) + 1 represents which paradigm?
(A) Divide and Conquer
(B) Greedy Algorithms
(C) Dynamic Programming
(D) Brute Force
Divide and Conquer
Q19. Divide and Conquer solves problems by:
(A) Iteratively solving subproblems
(B) Recursively solving subproblems
(C) Using heuristics
(D) Greedily combining solutions
Recursively solving subproblems
Q20. A threaded binary tree is one in which:
(A) Each node has two children
(B) Each node has at most one child
(C) Each node is connected to its parent
(D) Each node has a thread to predecessor or successor
Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor
Q21. Which traversal algorithm typically uses a stack?
(A) DFS
(B) BFS
(C) Both DFS and BFS
(D) Neither DFS nor BFS
DFS
Q22. In a directed graph, an edge from vertex A to B is denoted as:
(A) (A, B)
(B) [A, B]
(C) <A, B>
(D) {A, B}
(A, B)
Q23. Separate chaining stores collided elements in:
(A) Linked lists
(B) Arrays
(C) Stacks
(D) Queues
Linked lists
Q24. Which collision resolution technique places items in the next empty slot?
(A) Linear probing
(B) Quadratic probing
(C) Separate chaining
(D) Double hashing
Linear probing
Q25.In the Tower of Hanoi problem with "n" disks, how many moves are required to solve the problem?
(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) 2n − 1
(D) 2n
2n − 1
Q26. The process of removing recursion involves replacing recursive function calls with:
(A) More recursion
(B) Loops
(C) Extra memory allocation
(D) Non-recursive calls
Loops
Q27. A formal protection model in OS provides:
(A) Mathematical framework for resource allocation
(B) UI guidelines
(C) Memory optimization methods
(D) CPU utilization techniques
A mathematical framework for analyzing resource allocation
Q28.In an operating system, a "buffer cache" is used to:
(A) Store files permanently
(B) Store copies of frequently used files
(C) Store kernel
(D) Store I/O devices
Store copies of frequently used files in memory
Q29. File manipulation operations include:
(A) Allocating memory
(B) Assigning file names
(C) Loading files into registers
(D) Reading, writing, modifying files
Reading, writing, and modifying file content
Q30. The I/O subsystem is responsible for:
(A) Memory allocation
(B) File system management
(C) Managing I/O operations
(D) CPU scheduling
Managing input/output operations between processes and devices
Q31. The primary goal of load control is:
(A) Prevent concurrency
(B) Avoid context switching
(C) Even CPU time distribution
(D) Maximize virtual memory
Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
Q32. The purpose of a page table is to:
(A) Store pages
(B) Manage I/O
(C) Translate virtual to physical addresses
(D) Store instructions
Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
Q33. In multiprogramming with fixed partitions, if a process requires more memory than is available in a partition, it may lead to:
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Deadlock
(C) Priority inversion
(D) Starvation
Fragmentation
Q34. What is DBMS?
(A) Collection of queries
(B) High-level language
(C) Programming language
(D) Stores, modifies and retrieves data
DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
Q35. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
(A) Pointers
(B) Cursors
(C) Locks
(D) Triggers
Locks
Q36. The term "NTFS" refers to which one of the following?
(A) New Technology File System
(B) New Tree File System
(C) New Table type File System
(D) Both A and C
New Technology File System
Q37. Which of the following is a top-down approach in which the entity's higher level can be divided into two lower sub-entities?
(A) Aggregation
(B) Generalization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above
Specialization
Q38. DFD stands for:
(A) Data file diagram
(B) Data flow document
(C) Data flow diagram
(D) None
Data flow diagram
Q39. FAT stands for:
(A) File Allocation Tree
(B) File Allocation Table
(C) File Allocation Graph
(D) All of the above
File Allocation Table
Q40. The term "Data" refers to:
(A) Electronic representation
(B) Basic information
(C) Raw facts and figures
(D) Both A and C
Raw facts and figures
Q41. What is the primary function of routing in the network layer?
(A) Data framing
(B) Error correction
(C) Finding best path
(D) Flow control
Finding the best path for data
Q42. What is a socket in the context of process-to-process communication?
(A) Hardware device
(B) Software interface for network communication
(C) Cable
(D) Network topology
A software interface for network communication
Q43. Data transmission using multiple pathways simultaneously is known as:
(A) Parallel Transmission
(B) Serial Transmission
(C) Duplex Transmission
(D) Half-duplex Transmission
Parallel Transmission
Q44. Which of the following is NOT a network topology?
(A) Star
(B) Ring
(C) Disk
(D) Mesh
Disk
Q45. Contention-based MAC protocols are used in:
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring
(C) ATM
(D) Point-to-Point
Ethernet networks
Q46. Routing involves:
(A) Framing data
(B) Flow control
(C) Determining best path
(D) Error correction
Determining the best path for data packets
Q47. What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
(A) Assign IPs
(B) Resolve domain names
(C) Map MAC to IP
(D) Manage congestion
To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
Q48. Which SDLC model incorporates risk analysis?
(A) Waterfall
(B) Prototype
(C) Spiral
(D) Agile
Spiral model
Q49. The main goal of software quality assurance is:
(A) Eliminate all defects
(B) Defect-free release
(C) Enforce standards and processes
(D) Test software
Establish and enforce standards and processes to improve software quality
Q50. Reverse engineering is used for:
(A) Creating new software
(B) Improving performance
(C) Understanding existing software
(D) Testing components
Understanding and documenting existing software
Q51. Which testing approach involves testing individual components or units of code?
(A) Integration Testing
(B) System Testing
(C) Unit Testing
(D) Acceptance Testing
Unit Testing
Q52. What is the main goal of System Testing?
(A) Testing individual components in isolation
(B) Testing integration between components
(C) Testing software functionality from user's perspective
(D) Identifying source code defects
Testing software functionality from the user's perspective
Q53. Which metric is used for estimating the size of a software project?
(A) Cyclomatic Complexity
(B) Function Points (FP)
(C) Defect Density
(D) Software Reliability Index
Function Points (FP)
Q54. What is the purpose of staffing level estimation in software project management?
(A) Determine hardware requirements
(B) Identify project risks
(C) Allocate appropriate resources
(D) Estimate maintenance cost
To identify potential risks in the project
Q55. Which keyword is used to create an instance of a class?
(A) alloc
(B) new
(C) create
(D) instance
new
Q56. What is an abstract class in OOP?
(A) A class with no methods
(B) A class that cannot be instantiated
(C) A class with only private members
(D) A class without parameters
A class that cannot be instantiated
Q57. What is the purpose of the "super" keyword?
(A) Refers to superclass
(B) Creates new object
(C) Defines new class
(D) Handles exceptions
It refers to the superclass in inheritance
Q58. Which best defines a class?
(A) Instance of object
(B) Blueprint for creating objects
(C) Variable holding data
(D) Function with return value
A blueprint for creating objects
Q59. Which principle ensures only essential information is visible?
(A) Polymorphism
(B) Information hiding
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Abstraction
Information hiding
Q60. What is the main purpose of inheritance?
(A) Create instances
(B) Prevent abstraction
(C) Parent-child relationship
(D) Define exceptions
To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
Q61. What are abstract methods?
(A) Inaccessible methods
(B) Implemented methods
(C) Methods without body
(D) Non-inheritable methods
Methods without a body, defined in an abstract class
Q62. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
(A) HTTPS
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) TCP
SMTP
Q63. What does CSS stand for?
(A) Cascading Style System
(B) Creative Styling Script
(C) Computer Style Sheets
(D) Cascading Style Sheets
Cascading Style Sheets
Q64. Which library simplifies JavaScript DOM manipulation?
(A) JavaFX
(B) Bootstrap
(C) React
(D) jQuery
jQuery
Q65. What does AJAX stand for?
(A) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
(B) Automated JavaScript and XHTML
(C) Advanced JavaScript and XML
(D) Asynchronous JSON and XHTML
Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
Q66. How does the DOM tree reflect HTML structure?
(A) Alphabetical order
(B) Size-based
(C) Parent-child relationship
(D) Color-based
In a parent-child relationship
Q67. Which attribute uniquely identifies an XML element?
(A) id
(B) class
(C) name
(D) tag
id
Q68. Which strings are accepted by Kleene Star with even number of 0s and 1s?
(A) 01, 0011, 010101
(B) 0011, 11001100
(C) ε, 0011, 11001101
(D) ε, 0011, 11001100
ε, 0011, 11001100
Q69. A language for which DFA exists is a:
(A) Regular Language
(B) Non-Regular Language
(C) Any language
(D) Cannot be said
Regular Language
Q70. What is the identity element for string concatenation?
(A) u⁻¹
(B) v⁻¹
(C) u⁻¹v⁻¹
(D) ε
ε
Q71. DFA accepting binary numbers divisible by 3 has remainders:
(A) 0
(B) 0,2
(C) 0,1,2
(D) 0,1,2,3
0,1,2
Q72. Minimum number of states to accept strings ending with 101:
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) Can't be represented
2
Q73. Maximum DFA states from NFA with 5 non-initial states:
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 128
(D) 187
64
Q74. CFG is not closed under:
(A) Concatenation
(B) Intersection
(C) Union
(D) Repeated concatenation
Repeated concatenation
Q75. Which is NOT true about IoT?
(A) Uses microcontrollers
(B) Fully safe
(C) Uses sensors & actuators
(D) Uses wireless tech
IoT is fully safe
Q76. Which statement about IoT sensors is incorrect?
(A) Light sensor is analog
(B) Microphone is digital sensor
(C) Keyboard is digital sensor
(D) Push button is digital sensor
Microphone is a digital sensor
Q77. BLE stands for:
(A) Bluetooth large energy
(B) Bluetooth low energy
(C) Bluetooth light energy
(D) Bluetooth long energy
Bluetooth low energy
Q78. WSN stands for:
(A) Wireless Standard Protocol
(B) Wireless Sensor Protocol
(C) Wireless Serial Protocol
(D) Wireless Single Protocol
Wireless Sensor Protocol
Q79. A complex SCADA system has how many levels?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 4
4
Q80. MISO pin in RFID stands for:
(A) Master In Slave Out
(B) Manage Internal Slave Output
(C) Master Internal Search Optimization
(D) Manage Input Slave Op
Master In Slave Out
Q81. Who is known as the father of AI?
(A) Fisher Ada
(B) Alan Turing
(C) John McCarthy
(D) Allen Newell
John McCarthy
Q82. Programming language commonly used for AI is:
(A) Lisp
(B) Perl
(C) Prolog
(D) C++
Perl
Q83. Algorithm used in Game Tree for win/lose decisions:
(A) Heuristic Search
(B) DFS/BFS
(C) Greedy Search
(D) Min/Max
Min/Max algorithm
Q84. Uniform-cost search expands node with:
(A) Lowest path cost
(B) Heuristic cost
(C) Highest path cost
(D) Average path cost
Lowest path cost
Q85. Removing detail from a representation is called:
(A) Extraction
(B) Abstraction
(C) Data Mining
(D) Information Retrieval
Abstraction
Q86. First order predicate logic contains:
(A) Predicate and subject
(B) Predicate and preposition
(C) Subject and object
(D) None
Predicate and a subject
Q87. Which improves performance of an AI agent?
(A) Precision
(B) Learning
(C) Observing
(D) All of the above
Learning
Q88. Which is part of four main e-commerce types?
(A) B2B
(B) B2C
(C) C2B
(D) All of the above
All of the above
Q89. Process where sellers compete by lowering bids:
(A) B2B Marketplace
(B) Auction
(C) Reverse Auction
(D) Intranet
Reverse Auction
Q90. Easy market entry implies threat of new entrants is:
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Moderate
(D) Negligible
High
Q91. Creating products tailored to individuals is called:
(A) Customization
(B) Adaptation
(C) Direct material
(D) Auction
Customization
Q92. E-marketplace for same industry buyers & sellers:
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Integrated
(D) Isolated
Vertical
Q93. Secure Sockets Layer does:
(A) Creates secure connection
(B) Encrypts information
(C) Sends data online
(D) All of the above
All of the above
Q94. Delay during playback of a stream is called:
(A) Stream delay
(B) Playback delay
(C) Jitter
(D) Event delay
Jitter
Q95. In teardown state of RTSP:
(A) Server reserves resources
(B) Server delivers stream
(C) Server suspends delivery
(D) Server breaks connection
Server breaks down the connection
Q96. In real-time audio/video, jitter is introduced between:
(A) Pixels
(B) Layers
(C) Frames
(D) Packets
Packets
Q97. Voice sampling rate in audio compression:
(A) 8 bits per sample
(B) 5 bits per sample
(C) 7 bits per sample
(D) 6 bits per sample
8 bits per sample
Q98. Audio compression can be used for:
(A) Voice and data
(B) Video and voice
(C) Speech or music
(D) Pictures and colors
Speech or music
Q99. Each ___ represents a particular colour.
(A) Frame
(B) Character
(C) Pixel value
(D) None
Pixel value
Q100. __________ is a form of pictorial presentation.
(A) Photography
(B) Animations
(C) Drawing
(D) Creativity
Animations